# Running model without intercept term? [duplicate]

I have the true model set as $$y = b_0+b_1 x+u$$. Now supposing that I'm running the model without the intercept term,

Under what circumstances would the coefficient term in the model (without the intercept term) be an unbiased estimator?

Personally, I like this model choice because the conditional variance of my estimator is the most efficient (between the two model choices). Would this be a correct evaluation on my part?

• Check the requirements/assumptions for linear model. If your data and model meet the requirement then you estimate of the regression coefficients is unbiased. – user158565 Jul 14 '19 at 22:14
• – Christoph Hanck Jul 15 '19 at 11:56