There are two factors at play here.
The first factor is that when you compute residuals to work out the variance, you subtract the stratum mean in stratified sampling and the sample mean in simple random sampling.
If the correlation within strata is positive (which is essentially always the case), this gives a reduction in variance. If the correlation within strata is exactly zero the stratification doesn't matter (stratifying on an irrelevant variable). If the correlation within strata is negative, stratification gives an increase in variance.
I can't think of any natural example where you'd get a negative correlation, but it is mathematically possible.
The second factor is the proportions allocated to each stratum. If you sample from each stratum in proportion to its size in the population, this doesn't apply and only the first factor matters. But stratified sampling often doesn't do this. For example, in a country with states or provinces, you might stratify on state/province and choose the same sample size from each one, in order to get good estimates within each one. As a consequence, you have unequal sampling probabilities for people in difference states/provinces. Estimation of the whole-population mean will be less efficient: you have traded some precision in whole-population estimation for precision in estimating means of smaller states/provinces.
In the US, for example, using equal sampling fractions across states is bad for estimating means specific to Iowa. We may oversample Iowa (relative to more populous states) so that means for Iowa are good enough for government use. As a result, estimates for the country as a whole are less accurate than if we had done simple random sampling.
So:
- stratification good
- oversampling of small strata bad (at a population level, but good at a stratum level)
stratified random sampling is almost always preferred over simple random sampling
who said that? Do you have any sources for these and other claims? $\endgroup$