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How will a change in units of measurement of the independent variable from Celsius to Fahrenheit change the slope in a simple regression model?

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When you switch the independent variable to Fahrenheit, your slope will be the slope in Celsius divided by 1.6 (because 1 degree Celsius = 1.6 degrees Fahrenheit). If temperature was your dependent variable instead, you would have to multiply by 1.6.

The intercept will change too, of course.

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    $\begingroup$ Upvoted for the excellence and clarity of the answer. $\endgroup$ – James Phillips Sep 30 '19 at 9:19

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