I came across a paper that assumes the following has a t-distribution:
Let $W = \frac{\mathbf{a}'\mathbf{X}}{\sqrt{\mathbf{X}'\mathbf{X}}}$ and $\mathbf{a}' \in \mathbb{R}^n$ with $\mathbf{a}'\mathbf{a} = 1$. If $\mathbf{X} \sim N_n(\mathbf{0}, \mathbf{I}_n)$ then
$$\frac{\sqrt{(n-1)}W}{\sqrt{\left(1 - W^2\right)}},$$
follows a t-distribution with $n-1$ degrees of freedom.
I don't quite see how this is true though. I'm assuming that to start you'd need to show that $\mathbf{a}'\mathbf{X}$ and $\sqrt{\mathbf{X}'\mathbf{X}}$ are independent, but I'm not quite sure how to proceed in the multivariate case.