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I'm reading a paper by Gyöngyösi and Verner (2019), and noticed that the authors have included fixed effects at the settlement (seems to be akin to village/town) and at the region level, in a number of regressions.

I do not understand why region FEs would even be required, if you are accounting for settlement varying fixed effects.

Source: https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=3241309

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page 23: "We also control for time-varying regional shocks by including fixed effects for seven major regions (Region FE)."

Hence, these "fixed-effects" seem to be equal to 1 for all observations in a given region and a given year, and zero elsewhere. I agree that the "fixed-effect" denomination may let the reader think this is fixed over time.

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