Given $u_{it} = \nu _{it} - \theta \nu _{i\left ( t-1 \right )}$ for $t>1$
$u_{i1} = \nu _{i1}$
and the $\nu _{it}$ are white noise with variance equal to $\sigma^{2}$.
I can find the expected value and the variance.
Since $u_{it} = -\sum_{j=0}^{\infty }\theta^{j} \nu_{i\left ( t-j \right )}$ and $$E\left ( u_{it} \right ) = E\left [ -\sum_{j=0}^{\infty }\theta^{j} \nu_{i\left ( t-j \right )} \right ] = 0.$$
Also $$Var\left ( u_{it} \right ) = Var\left [ -\sum_{j=0}^{\infty }\theta^{j} \nu_{i\left ( t-j \right )} \right ] = \sigma^{2}\frac{1}{1 - \theta^{2}}$$
But I am not sure about the covariance.
Is it the one I derived below?
$$Cov\left ( u_{it},u_{i\left ( t+k \right )} \right ) = \theta^{k} Var(u_{it}) = \theta^{k}\frac{\sigma^{2}}{1 - \theta^{2}}$$
This relates to the question I asked here which didn't get too many views and hence no response.