# How to verify if a likelihood of Bayes' rule follows the binomial distribution?

This lecturer talks about maximum likelihood estimation (MLE), maximum a posteriori (MAP) estimation and Bayes rule, and uses the tilde symbol in a statement.

Does tilde here mean "follows", likelihood follows the binomial distribution? If yes, How to verify this?

• Yes, in my experience $X~$... has always meant something (like a R.V. $X$) is distributed via a certain distribution. So, a use case is $X~b(x;n,p)$ where $X$ is distributed binomially with $n$ independent Bernoulli trials with a probability of success $p$. You can verify this by asking the lecturer.
– user214190
Oct 30, 2019 at 13:00

Your interpretation of the author's use of $$\sim$$ seems about right. Based on how the slide is typeset, it seems like saving space was more important than precision.