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As I want to find an approximately linear relationship between $x$ and $y$, how to transform this scatter plot with heteroscedasticity into an approximately linear model?

If this cannot be transformed into a linear model, then how to determine a proper range for $x$ (around 0) to get a satisfying linear relationship?

Any help would be appreciated.

enter image description here

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  • $\begingroup$ Just to know, why does heteroscedasticity bother you ? (Because a linear relationship seems fine in your case, except that you have to account for heteroscedasticity for the computation of standard errors) $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 3, 2019 at 20:30
  • $\begingroup$ You could use a generalised least squares model which allows for heteroscedasticity. $\endgroup$
    – André.B
    Commented Nov 3, 2019 at 20:34
  • $\begingroup$ Also to clarify: A linear model does not mean that there needs to be a straight line relationship between x and y. The "linear" part in the name is eluding to the linear combination of predictors. Linear models include models with polynomial terms. $\endgroup$
    – André.B
    Commented Nov 3, 2019 at 20:36
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks, guys. I just want to fit a model that could show a more precise negative relationship. LIke $x_2>x_1$ then $y_2<y_1$, but this heteroscedasticity makes the result not reliable, so I want to eliminate the influence of heteroscedasticity and make an approximately linear model. $\endgroup$
    – Aeeh
    Commented Nov 3, 2019 at 22:54

1 Answer 1

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Since you do not give a model I will describe one that has a similar look to your data and I belive it deals with the heteroscedasticity in a natural way.

Consider your observations $(X, Y)$ as a complex random variable such that $$ X + iY =Z e^{i (\theta + \varepsilon)}. $$

Where $Z$ and $\varepsilon$ are independendent real random variables with zero mean and finite variance and $\theta \in (-\pi/2 , \pi/2)$.

This model can be extended to include an unknown complex intercept which we omit for simplicity.

The following illustration shows a $\%95$ coverage region and a realization of 100 independet points with $\theta = -\pi/4$ and normaility for $Z$ and $\varepsilon$

The following illustration shows a <span class=$\%95$ coverage region ">

The idea of this model is that $\theta$ gives a line (red dashed in the figure) along which the process selects a point with $Z$ and then perturbates that point along the green lines by modifying it's phase by $\varepsilon$.

From the model definition we get that $$ \left. \begin{array}{1} Y = Z \sin (\theta + \varepsilon) \\ X = Z \cos (\theta + \varepsilon) \end{array} \right\} \implies Y = X \tan(\theta + \varepsilon) \implies \arctan(\frac{Y}{X}) = \theta +\varepsilon. $$ From a sample $(X_1, Y_1) \ldots (X_n,Y_n)$ we get the following estimation $$ \hat \theta = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k = 1}^n \arctan (\frac{Y_k}{X_k})$$

From a new observation $X_{new}$ we can construct a a new value $$Y_{new} = X_{new}\tan( \hat \theta )$$

It is important to note that the least squares estimatior derived from the model $$Y = X \beta + \varepsilon, $$ is different from the one we obtained.

This is made explicit in the following figure where the boxplot shows the error for estimating $\theta$ with $\hat \theta$ and $\arctan(\hat \beta)$ . It was obtained with 1000 replications under the same scenario as the first figure with $n = 40$ samples. The least squares estimator is clearly biased and has higher variability.

The second plot in the figure compares the densities of the Root Mean squared Prediction Error for both methods. After each of the 1000 estimation 1000 new points were independently generated. The blue line corresponds to the least squares method. It is clear that at least in this scenario the described method is superior also in prediction.

enter image description here

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