Let $X_1,X_2,\dots,X_n$ be a random sample from a $\Gamma(\theta,\theta)$ distribution. Then $$ \prod_{i=1}^n f(x_i;\theta) = \frac{1}{\Gamma(\theta)^n\theta^n}(\prod_{i=1}^n x_i)^{\theta-1}e^{-\frac{\sum_{i=1}^n x_i}{\theta}}, $$ which cannot be factored as in Fisher–Neyman factorization theorem. In particular, neither $\prod_i X_i$ nor $\sum_{i} X_i$ is a sufficient statistic.
Can we conclude that a sufficient statistic does not exist in this case?