I came across the following answer to a problem, and I couldn't reconcile the answer with what I found. I'm sure I did something wrong, but I'm not sure where my mistake is.
The model is of the following form:
$E[Y_i] = \mu_i = (\beta_0 + \beta_1x_i)^2$
with the $Y_i$ iid with a Pareto distribution.
The question is whether this constitutes a GLM. My idea was to take the square root link function:
$g(\mu_i) = ((\beta_0 + \beta_1x_i)^2)^{1/2} = \beta_0 + \beta_1x_i = x_i^T\beta$
where $x_i^T = [1,\: x_i]$ and $\beta^T = [\beta_0,\: \beta_1]$.
Since the $g$ is monotone and differentiable, the Pareto distribution is exponential, and $g(\mu_i)$ is linear in the $\beta_i$ terms, this seems to be a valid GLM to me. The solution to the exercise though says that this model "does not have the canonical form, so this is not a GLM." Does anyone see any mistake I could have made? Perhaps I did not understand what "canonical" means here.
Thank you in advance!
EDIT: It turns out I misread the solution. The original text is "The Pareto distribution belongs to the exponential family, but it does not have the canonical form so this is not a GLM." This is in line with @Glen_b -Reinstate Monica's comment