I recently asked this question
In regression model with random regressors
$$(1) \ \ y = a + bx + e$$
can I change the equation to
$$(2) \ \ x = (-a/b) + (1/b)y + (-1/b)e$$
and consistently estimate $(1/b)$ with OLS?
which is already answered here whats the difference between regression of x on y versus y on x and related here. Very interesting post but I would like to ask the following follow up question:
I guess we can all agree that (1) and (2) are mathematically equivalent. I then noticed that if I simulate equation (1) by
- Drawing x and drawing e with x independently of x and then calulate y using formula (1) the OLS estimator regressing y on x consistently estimates a and b.
However if simulate by
- Drawing y and drawing e indenpently and the calculate x according to (2) then the OLS estimator regressing x on y consistently estimates $\lambda_0=(-a/b)$ and $\lambda_1 := 1/b$.
The question then is does this not mean that the model statement (1) is somehow incomplete in the sense that a more complete model statement would be
$$y = a + b x + e \wedge x \perp e$$ versus
$$y = a + b x + e \wedge y \perp e$$
because for the latter model it would exactly be necessary to use OLS as associated with the equation
$$(2) \ \ x = (-a/b) + (1/b)y + (-1/b)e$$
to get consistent estimates. So my question boils down to when we simply write $$y = a + bx + e$$ the statement is somewhat incomplete missing the variable dependencies?