Suppose we have a random variable $y$ and a collection $(x_1,\dots,x_n)$ of $n$ random variables that are all uncorrelated: $\operatorname{corr}(x_i,x_j) = 0$ $\forall i \ne j$ and that all have the same correlation with $y$: $\operatorname{corr}(y,x_i) = \rho$ $\forall i$. Obviously, they can't all have correlation $1$ or $-1$ with $y$ and be uncorrelated at the same time, so there must be bounds.
This question came up when I was solving a different problem, finding the correlation between $y$ and the linear model $\hat{y} = X(X^\intercal X)^{-1}X^\intercal y$, where $X = (x_1,\dots,x_n)$ and $y,x_i$ are now thought of as $m\ge n$ random samples from the random variables. I found that if the random variables have mean $0$ and variance $1$, the expected value is $\operatorname{corr}(y,\hat{y})=\rho\sqrt{n}$, there's also a more complicated formula for the general case (can post if interested, wanna keep this post short).
This lead me to conjecture that the bounds for $\rho$ are $\left[-\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}},\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}\right]$, now thinking about proving it for the general case.