In this talk from prof Bernhard https://youtu.be/4qc28RA7HLQ?t=88

he only sees/shows linear correlation, and he assumes there is ‘dependency’?

Correct me if wrong but correlation does not imply ‘dependency’ so why is he implying it?


  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Correlation does not imply causality, but dependence / independence is a different concept. $\endgroup$
    – jbowman
    Feb 1, 2020 at 15:19

1 Answer 1


From purely probabilistic perspective, if two random variables are correlated, they can't be statistically independent, i.e. $\operatorname{cov}(X,Y)\neq0\rightarrow X\not\perp Y$. But, if the correlation/covariance is $0$, those variables can still be dependent. So, presence of correlation implies dependence between random variables; but the presence of dependence doesn't imply correlation.


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