# fisher transformation for pearson allows building a different confidence interval than for spearman?

I'm confused by the wikipedia articles for fisher transformation for spearman and pearson. It looks like for pearson, the confidence interval is built around $$\frac{1}{2}ln(\frac{1+\rho}{1-\rho})$$ where $$\rho$$ is the true correlation coefficient, and for spearman it is built around $$\rho=0$$.

Is that the case? why? Isn't spearman simply applying the pearson correlation on ranks? Can both cases be specified in the same manner, e.g. building a confidence interval around the true spearman and the true pearson?