I'm confused by the wikipedia articles for fisher transformation for spearman and pearson. It looks like for pearson, the confidence interval is built around $\frac{1}{2}ln(\frac{1+\rho}{1-\rho})$ where $\rho$ is the true correlation coefficient, and for spearman it is built around $\rho=0$.
Is that the case? why? Isn't spearman simply applying the pearson correlation on ranks? Can both cases be specified in the same manner, e.g. building a confidence interval around the true spearman and the true pearson?
related to How to calculate a confidence interval for Spearman's rank correlation?
