My questions are about some of the details in the appendix of the paper Unbiased Measurement of Feature Importance in Tree-Based Methods (on arXiv).
On p.13, it says:
- Given that the test data is independent of the training data and the independence between $X_j$ and $y$, then in expectation, we should have $E(p'_{m,1} ) = E(p'_{l,1} ) = p'_{1}$, where $p'_{1}$ is the class 1 proportion evaluated on the test data.
- (As previously defined in Eq. (7) on p.8) $\Delta'(\theta^*_m) = \omega_m H'(m) - ( \omega_l H'(l) + \omega_r H'(r) )$, where $\omega_{m,l,r}$ are the proportions of observations falling into each node $m, l, r$.
I do not see why the expected proportion of class 1 in the test set at each node should be equal to the global $p'_{1}$! After all, the tree was built with the goal of changing the class distributions at each split, which would also affect the test data. Further: since the definition of the modified impurity $H'(m) = 1- p_{m,1} p'_{m,1}- p_{m,2} p'_{m,2}$ contains a mixture of train and test data, it is not clear any longer how exactly the $\omega_{m,l,r}$ are defined ? Do we not need a test version $\omega'_{m,l,r}$?
Thanks,