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I do not get how $\Phi\left(\frac{\ln (100)-3}{2}\right)$ and $\Phi\left(\frac{\ln (150)-3}{2}\right)$ should give me the probabilities 0.7889 and 0.8426 respectively. I looked at the distribution table and used a calculator but I get different results.

Thanks for any advice.

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  • $\begingroup$ I don't think this question needs a complete solution. The OP clearly states what he/she has done. It just needs the right direction. $\endgroup$ – gunes Mar 18 at 13:29

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