2
$\begingroup$

I've read the site, the MANOVA section in a stats for n00bs book and Googled but I can't find this answer.

I believe I'm conducting a one-way MANOVA. I have one IV which consists of two groups. I have two DVs.

I have a result of:

F = 2.98,Pillai's Trace = 0.0306, df 2,189, p = 0.053

I've read Pillai's trace is similar to R^2 in that it's describing the amount of variance explained but nowhere says how you actually interpret that. I would really appreciate some pointers or a link to a clear explainer on the subject. I.e. does this mean 3% of model variance explained? NB. I know this result isn't strictly significant but I'm using it as an example as I have some which are.

Improve this question
$\endgroup$
1

0

Reset to default

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.