0
$\begingroup$

I am supposed to use the delta method to find the limiting distribution for $$\sqrt{n}\left(\frac{\overline{X}_n}{1-\overline{X}_n} - \frac{E(X)}{1-E(X)}\right)$$ where $f(x, \theta)=\theta x^{\theta-1}I\{x\in (0,1)\}$. I'm utterly lost on how to do this, as this doesn't line up with how he briefly explained the Delta method in class.

$\endgroup$
3

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

Hint:

let we know by central limit theorem $$\sqrt{n}(\bar{X}-\mu_{x})\rightarrow N(0,\sigma^2)$$

By using Taylor series we get $$\sqrt{n}\left(h(\bar{X})-h(\mu_{x})\right)=\sqrt{n} (\bar{X}-\mu_{x})h^{\prime}(\mu_{x}) +\sqrt{n} (\bar{X}-\mu_{x})^2\frac{h^{\prime \prime}(\mu_{x})}{2!}+\cdots$$

lets we use an approximation like (if $h^{\prime}(\mu_{x})\neq 0$)

$$\sqrt{n}\left(h(\bar{X})-h(\mu_{x})\right)\cong \color{red}{\sqrt{n} (\bar{X}-\mu_{x})}h^{\prime}(\mu_{x})\rightarrow N(0,?) $$

$\endgroup$
6
  • $\begingroup$ That would go to $N(0,(h'(\mu_x))^2\sigma^2)$ I believe $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 11, 2020 at 19:10
  • $\begingroup$ I think, its look good to me. $\endgroup$
    – Masoud
    Commented Apr 11, 2020 at 19:13
  • $\begingroup$ Okay, so how do I extend that to the entire Taylor expansion? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 11, 2020 at 19:14
  • $\begingroup$ Usually you just use the first term of Taylor series. But some times $h^{\prime}(\mu_{x})= 0$ so you use the second term. It is depend on the situation. $\endgroup$
    – Masoud
    Commented Apr 11, 2020 at 19:18
  • $\begingroup$ Oh okay. Thank you! $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 11, 2020 at 19:25

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.