1)My instructor says that because we assume the normality of the errors, we can calculate the correct standard error for the coefficient of a variable and further their t-statistics and p-values, but i fail to understand how normality of the error terms influences the standard errors. 2)Then the instructor says that, this isn't much of a problem even if they are not normally distributed because we can make them so by using CLT. But CLT says that if you have a population with mean μ and standard deviation σ and take sufficiently large random samples from the population with replacement , then the distribution of the sample means will be approximately normally distributed, it will not make the errors itself in the sample normally distributed, and what we want here is for the errors in the sample to be normally distributed right?
Please forgive me, if i go grossly wrong on some basic concept as i am a mere beginner and looking to make my foundation in regression strong, and hence asking such questions which may seem to others to be silly.