I just read that the Ansari-Bradley test is a test of stochastic equality of two variances regardless of any distributional assumptions. If it is so flexible, why do we even need the F test?
I am confused, as for the Ansari-Bradley test it is said it is about "scale parameters", not just "variances". But whenever I go to read about the scale parameters, scaling the "width" of the distribution, there is a reference to variance.
Is somehow the F test bound to the normal distribution? Variance in general applies to any distribution, not just the normal. But I thought this may be important?
I found, when using the R statistical package, that both tests may differ a lot, sometimes the var.test() reports low p-value while the Ansari-Bradley test reports high p.value.
Example:
> a <- c(1,2,3,4,5,10,12,14,15,20,30,40,50,60,70,100)
> b <- c(1.1,1.2,3,3.3,5.5,10.1,10.3,14.1,15.1,20.1,31,32,33,34,35)
> ansari.test(a, b)
Ansari-Bradley test
data: a and b
AB = 121.5, p-value = 0.4013
alternative hypothesis: true ratio of scales is not equal to 1
Warning message:
In ansari.test.default(a, b) : cannot compute exact p-value with ties
> var.test(a, b)
F test to compare two variances
data: a and b
F = 4.9132, num df = 15, denom df = 14, p-value = 0.004904
alternative hypothesis: true ratio of variances is not equal to 1
95 percent confidence interval:
1.665875 14.206412
sample estimates:
ratio of variances
4.9132