The example and question are from the book Book of Why by Judea Pearl.
Suppose we have three random variables: $A \rightarrow B \rightarrow C$. $B$ is a mediator. Conditioning on $B$ would screen-off the effect of $A$ on $C$ and $A$ and $C$ becomes independent. Independence means, knowing the value of one variable does not affect the probability of the other.
Now let's say the specific random variables are: $Fire \rightarrow Smoke \rightarrow Alarm$, $Smoke$ is a mediator. If we say $Smoke=1$, all the values in both $Fire$ and $Alarm$ will be 1, as $Fire$ causes $Smoke$ that causes the $Alarm$ to go off. It was dependent and it's dependent now. Every row in the conditional probability table is either full 1s or full 0s. If we know that if $Fire=1$ then $Alarm=1$.
+------+-------+-------+
| Fire | Smoke | Alarm |
+------+-------+-------+
| 0 | 0 | 0 |
+------+-------+-------+
| 0 | 0 | 0 |
+------+-------+-------+
| 1 | 1 | 1 |
+------+-------+-------+
| 0 | 0 | 0 |
+------+-------+-------+
| 1 | 1 | 1 |
+------+-------+-------+
I don't get the part, that conditioning on a mediator makes them independent. If we know $Fire$ we know the value of $Alarm$. Conditioning on $Smoke$ doesn't change that at all, so why did it render $A$ and $C$ or $Fire$ and $Alarm$ independent?
What am I missing?