I hope everyone is having a nice day. I don't know why this inequality holds.
$$ Pr[X-\mu \geq t]= Pr[e^{\lambda(X-\mu)} \geq e^{\lambda t}] $$
For $\lambda >0$. I guess it has something to do because the transformation of $e^x$ doesn't affect the inequality, but my question is, if that happens, how I know is the same probability?
I am trying to solve this question because I am learning about differential privacy that uses the Chernoff Bound, which uses this equality. These are the links where they use this equality:
Link:
- https://www.cs.utexas.edu/~ecprice/courses/randomized/notes/lec2.pdf
- https://www.probabilitycourse.com/chapter6/6_2_3_chernoff_bounds.php
- http://crypto.stanford.edu/~blynn/pr/chernoff.html
Thanks.