I'm assuming what you want to estimate is $E[XY]$ (you don't say, but the use of the sample mean suggests it)
Intuitively, $\overline{XY}$ would work even if $X$ and $Y$ weren't independent, so it should be less efficient under the additional assumption that they are independent. Let's see how that goes
Let's look at the case where $X$ and $Y$ are Normal, to start off. The maximum likelihood estimators of the means $\mu_x$ and $\mu_y$ of $X$ and $Y$ are the sample averages $\bar X$ and $\bar Y$, and the invariance principle for MLEs says that the MLE of $\mu_x\mu_y$ is $\bar X\bar Y$.
The mean of $\bar X\bar Y$ is $\mu_x\mu_u$ (by independence). Its variance is $\mu^2_x\sigma^2_y/n+\mu^2_y\sigma^2_x/n+\sigma^2_x\sigma^2/n^2$
The mean of $\overline{XY}$ is $\mu_x\mu_y$. The variance of $XY$ is $\mu^2_x\sigma^2_y+\mu^2_y\sigma^2_x+\sigma^2_x\sigma^2$ so the variance of $\overline{XY}$ is $(\mu^2_x\sigma^2_y+\mu^2_y\sigma^2_x+\sigma^2_x\sigma^2)/n$
which is larger than the variance of $\bar X\bar Y$.
The mean and variance analysis still works when $X$ and $Y$ are not Normal, so it's still true that $\bar X\bar Y$ is more efficient. However, it's now possible that there are more efficient estimators, because the sample average is no longer the MLE. For example, if $X$ and $Y$ have a Laplace distribution, the sample medians are the MLEs of the means of $X$ and $Y$, so the product of the sample medians will be a more efficient estimator than $\bar X\bar Y$.
In the nonparametric model where all you know about $X$ and $Y$ is that they have finite means, the sample average is efficient (because basically anything else is inconsistent) and $\bar X\bar Y$ will be optimal again.