My interest lies in finding the "right" correlation between a continuous IV ($x$) and a continuous DV ($y$).
At first I ran a simple linear regression:
$$
y=a+b_1 x
$$
However, lots of other factors influence $y$ besides $x$. One of them is a categorical variable $c$, with $n+1$ categories. Using dummy coding, I ran the regression:
$$
y = a + b_1x + b_2c_1 + b_3c_2 + \ldots + b_{n+1}c_n
$$
$c$ and $x$ are not orthogonal, so I then added interaction effects:
$$
y = a + b_1x + b_2c_1 + b_3c_2 + \ldots + b_{n+1}c_n + b_{n+2}xc_1 + \ldots b_{2n+1}xc_n
$$
The interaction effect is significant (although the coefficients for some categories*x are not), as is the main effect, in all models, and (most) of the category coefficients.
What I noticed, however, is that the coefficient $b_1$ is somewhat different in each of the three models. What is the correct way to interpret the correlation of $x$ and $y$?