This question is in the context where we have some observed data $x$ and some latent variables $z$ which may be used to 'explain' the data. Let's say we have some likelihood model $p(x \vert z)$ and some prior over latent variables $p(z)$. Why is approximating the marginal distribution hard or computationally expensive? Is there something inherently wrong with approximating $p(x)$ using samples from the prior as follows (this seems like it'd be an unbiased estimator as well):
$$ \log p(x) = \log \int dz \, p(x \vert z) p(z) \approx \log \sum_i p(x \vert z_i), \quad z_i \sim p(z) $$
This looks quite similar to how we would compute the evidence lower bound (ELBO), which is used to approximate the marginal log-likelihood by introducing a variational distribution $q(z;x)$:
$$ \log p(x) \geq \textrm{ELBO}(x) = \int dz \, q(z;x) \left[\log p(x \vert z) p(z) - \log q(z;x)\right]$$
The ELBO is usually approximated using multiple samples from $q$:
$$\textrm{ELBO}(x) \approx \log p(x \vert z_i) p(z_i) - \log q(z_i; x), \quad z_i \sim q(z;x)$$
I understand why computing the marginal likelihood exactly may be 'intractable' in common cases - i.e. no analytical form exists if $x$ depends nonlinearly on the $z$s or numerical evaluation of the integrals could take time exponential in the dimension of $z$, but don't understand why the above sample approximation for the ELBO is widely used (in some cases only a single sample is used!), while approximating the marginal likelihood similarly, $p(x) \approx \sum_i p(x \vert z_i)$, is not acceptable/widely used.
Edit: Thinking about it a bit more (and prompted by a comment), I guess $q(z;x)$ is being used to form an importance sampling estimate of the marginal likelihood:
$$ p(x) = \int dz \, p(x \vert z)p(z) = \int dz \, q(z;x) \frac{p(x \vert z) p(z)}{q(z;x)} $$
From which the ELBO is derived by taking logs and using Jensen's inequality, but I don't understand why this should result in a lower variance estimate than the native $p(x) \approx \sum_i p(x \vert z_i)$ estimate.