Suppose we were trying to estimate the impact of $Size$ of a house on its price while controlling for whether or not the house is located by the water. Suppose we constructed a dummy variable for houses by the water ($DW=1$ for houses by the water and $DW=0$ for houses not by the water) and were looking at the regression model $$Price = \beta_0 + \beta_1 Size+ \beta_2 DW + \mu$$
My Question: Would it be correct to interpret $\beta_1$ as: $\beta_1$ is the effect of size of price, regardless of whether or not a house is located by the water, and assuming that the effect of size on houses by the water is similar to the effect of size on houses not by the water?
I say “regardless of whether or not a house is located by the water” because I think I should account for both the cases when $DW=0$ and $DW=1$. Also, I say “assuming that the effect of size on houses by the water is similar to the effect of size on houses not by the water” due to the lack of the interaction term in the regression model.
Is my interpretation of $\beta_1$ correct? If not, how can it be improvised?