Here is my question:
Can the value of 'likelihood' function take the value that is greater than 1? If yes, how can we mathematically show that?
[ I know that the likelihood function is not the probability density function and its value can be greater than 1, but I want to show my claim more properly.]
When we scale the data (such as the bond yields) by multiplying 100*data, how does this operation affect the 'log-likelihood' function comparing with the case of dividing the data by 100 ((1/100)*data)?
Thank you very much for your time and considerations. Sp