I was given a thought experiment a while back to think about, but I haven't been able to come up with a solution.
The question is
For some dataset $X$ with response $Y$, you apply ridge regression. However, no matter what value of $\lambda$ you use, the angle between $\hat{Y}$ and $Y$ remains unchanged. What could be the source of this?
Based on how this question is posed, it seems that we can use a value for $\lambda$ and the angle between $\hat{Y}$ and $Y$ remain unchanged, so this means we can use $\lambda = 0$, which corresponds to our OLS solution. So what this seems to suggest is that no matter that $\lambda$, the $\hat{Y}$ determined from Ridge Regression is $\hat{Y}$ determined from OLS multiplied by some constant factor?
Is this the idea? If so, when does this occur?