This should be a simple inquiry. Doing a regression analysis I found that the coefficient of a predictor has a(n) (infinitesimal) positive effect of 0.001 that is significant at the 0.005 level.
I cannot help wondering how a similar phenomenon may be possibile. Do you think it might depend on the fact that my variables are not (yet) scaled? As soon as I have rescaled all the predictors, do you think that the magnitude of the effect in point would change?
I hope someone is able to clarify this puzzle.