From my reading about the potential outcomes framework (POF) and structural causal models (SCM), I understand that both perspectives have been shown to be equivalent but take different starting points. In particular, the POF takes as a starting point the potential outcomes (+some model) and relates these via the observation rule to observed outcomes. In contrast, the SCM perspective defines a model based on the observed outcomes from which the potential outcomes can then be derived. Let us consider a linear model from both perspectives.
The POF defines a model of $Y(0)$ and $Y(1)$ and uses the observation rule to link these to the observed outcome $Y$.
$Y(0)=a_0 + U(0)$
$Y(1)=Y(0)+\tau$ (this implies a constant treatment effect of $\tau$)
$Y=XY(1)+(1-X)Y(0)$
The latter can be rearranged to $Y=Y(0)+(Y(1)-Y(0))X$ and after plugging in the equations for $Y(0)$ and $Y(1)$ we get
$Y=a_0+U(0)+((Y(0)+\tau)-Y(0))X$ which can be simplified to $Y=a_0+\tau X+U(0)$
Redefining $a_0 = b_0$, $\tau=b_1$, and $U(0)=U$ we get the following
$Y=b_0+b_1X+U$
Would it be ok to say that we here went from the potential outcomes to a linear SCM, as each term in the last equation has a clear structural/causal interpretation?
If so, my question would be how we can go from the SCM to the potential outcomes as is preferred by Pearl? I guess one would start from a SCM
$X=U_X$
$Y=b_0+b_1X+U_Y$
Now from the "Fundamental Law of Counterfactuals" $Y_x(u)=Y_{M_x}(u)$ potential outcomes are defined in models where $X$ is set to $x$ by replacing the respective equation. Thus
$Y_0(u) = b_0+U_Y$ and $Y_1(u) = b_0+b_1+U_Y$
Written in the above notation and using the alternative definitions from above we would have
$Y(0)=a_0+U_Y$ and $Y(1)=Y(0)+\tau$
I have deliberately not replaced $U_Y$ with $U(0)$, as here I'm not really sure about it.
Is the interpretation of $U(0)$, because it has potential outcome notation: "All factors other than $X$ that affect $Y(0)$" or alternatively "All factors other than $X$ that affect $Y$ in the absence of $X$"?
The interpretation of $U_Y$ according to Pearl et al. (2016, p.81) would be "factors ... that influence $Y$ and are not themselves affected by $X$." Is this mathematically and in meaning equivalent to $U(0)$?
A follow-up question would be how to do the same in the scenario of heterogeneity in individual treatment effects. In this scenario, an error term $U(1)$ is added for the equation $Y(1)$, resulting in the end in a more complicated error term $U(0) + (U(1)-U(0))X$ in the model for the observed outcome. How would this be derived from a (linear) SCM?
My goal in asking these questions is to better reconcile my understanding of the "different perspectives". Thanks for your help!