There are $X_1, X_2$ where $X_i \sim N(\mu_i,1), i=1,2$. They are independent. The question is
Find the likelihood ratio test with $H_0:(\mu_1,\mu_2)=(0,0), H_1:(\mu_1,\mu_2) \neq (0,0)$. The significance level is $\alpha (0< \alpha <1)$ and parameter space $\Omega$ is $$\Omega = \left\{ (\mu_1,\mu_2) : \mu_1 \geq 0, \mu_2 \geq 0\right\}$$
My solution is $X_1^2 \geq \chi_p^2(1)$ or $X_2^2 \geq \chi_q^2(1)$ or $X_1^2+X_2^2 \geq \chi_r^2(2)$ where $p+q+r=\alpha$. Is it right?
Detail of my solution :
Let $\mu = (\mu_1, \mu_2)^T$. Then $\hat{\mu}^{\Omega_0}=(0,0)$ and $\hat{\mu}^{\Omega} = \left(\max\{x_1, 0\}, \max\{x_2,0\}\right)$ because parameter space is not $\mathbb{R}^2$.
Then I calculated $\Lambda = 2[l(\hat{\mu}^{\Omega}) - l(\hat{\mu}^{\Omega_0})]$ to find the rejection region from $\Lambda \geq \lambda (\lambda > 0)$.
After some algebra, I got $\Lambda = x_1^2I_{(x_1>0, x_2<0)} + x_2^2I_{(x_1<0, x_2>0)} + (x_1^2+x_2^2)I_{(x_1>0, x_2>0)}$.
Under the null hypothesis, $X_i^2 \sim \chi^2(1)(i=1,2)$ so $X_1^2+X_2^2 \sim \chi^2(2)$.
Finally I got the above rejection region.