The delta method begins with the assumption of $\sqrt{n} \left[X_n - \theta\right] \stackrel{D}{\to} \mathcal{N}(0, \sigma^2)$. Why is this? Wouldn't it make more sense to start in the more familiar arrangement of $X_n \stackrel{D}{\to} \mathcal{N}\left(\theta, \frac{\sigma^2}{n} \right)$ ? Or even better, replace $\theta$ with $\mu$. Now it's a normal distribution in terms of mean and standard error.
I have the same question for the conclusion. Wouldn't the conclusion of $g(X_n) \stackrel{D}{\to} \mathcal{N}\left(g(\theta),\frac{\sigma^2[g'(\theta)]^2}{n}\right)$ make more sense to more readers for the same reason?
Is my math wrong? Is there some history of the delta method that dictates the original form? Thanks!