I'm looking at an example here: https://www.math.ucdavis.edu/~romik/teaching-pages/mat235a-2013/discussion8.pdf (2nd example below Lemma 5)
We have that $X_n$ converges in probability to 0. I'm looking at the bit where we show want to $X_n/(1+X_n)$ converges in $L^1$ to 0.
I do not understand how the author has bounded the expectation above by what is shown. I have tried to use Markov's inequality, but I can only bound it below.