Why do we consider the more extreme possible observations of the test statistic when hypothesis testing? For example, I tried having a read of the tea-testing scenario, where a man named Fisher tries to test to see if Muriel has "discriminatory powers" in guessing whether a given cup of tea had milk put in first or last, as she so claimed. She guessed 5 out of 6 right.
I got stuck here (the bold part):
Fisher realised that this doesn't work; every possible outcome with one wrong pair was equally suggestive of discriminatory powers. The relevant probability for situation (a), above, is therefore 6(0.5)^6 = 0.094 (or 6/64) which now is not significant at a significance level of 5%. To overcome this Fisher argued that if 1 error in 6 is considered evidence of discriminatory powers then so is no errors i.e. outcomes that more strongly indicate discriminatory powers than the one observed should be included when calculating the p-value. This resulted in the following amendment to the...
Why are we even considering the chance of no errors? The observed value of $X$ (the number of errors she got) was 1 out of 6 times. Why aren't we saying "Hey, $X \sim B(6, 0.5)$. Let's find $P(X = 1)$"? Why are we saying "Lets find $P(X \leq 1)$"? She never got 0 errors.
This is a problem I'm having in general with hypothesis testing. Why aren't we just sticking to what we observed?