Suppose $\{X_i\}_{i=1}^n\overset{i.i.d}{\sim}X,$ and $X$ has density $f(x)=\frac{1}{b}\exp\{-\frac{1}{b}(x-a)\},x>a$. What is the UMVUE of $\frac{a}{b}$?
Here is what I've done so far.
It can be shown that $(X_{(1)},\sum[X_i-X_{(1)}])$ is sufficient and complete statistic. Also, $X_{(1)}$ is independent with $\sum[X_i-X_{(1)}])$. We also have the UMVUE of $b$ and $a$ are $\frac{1}{n-1}\sum[X_i-X_{(1)}]$ and $X_{(1)} - \frac{1}{n(n-1)}\sum[X_i-X_{(1)}]$, respectively. Also, we know that $\mathbb{E}\left(\frac{n-2}{4}\frac{1}{\sum[X_i-X_{(1)}]}\right)=\frac{1}{b}$. However, I don't know how to get the UMVUE of $a/b$.