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I am confused with the Pseudo $R^2$ computation of the negative binomial regression model. For the logistic regression, we can compute the Pseudo $R^2$ as

pR = 1 - fit$deviance /fit$null.deviance
pR

I believe that the interpretation of this quantity $pR$ will be the amount of deviance explained by the regression model.

Can we use this for the negative binomial regression model? Thank you so much for your time!

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