I was wondering if anyone ever tried to do a regression where the errors, instead of normal, would be assumed to be from the Logistic Distribution.
I don't mean Logistic Regression, as I don't assume that the $y$'s are coming from a Bernoulli distribution whose mean is dependent on some covariates, but rather that the $y$'s come from a symmetric Logistic distribution, whose pdf is:
$$f_Y(y;\mu) = \frac{e^{(y-\mu)}}{(1+e^{(y-\mu)})^2},\,\,-\infty\lt y\lt \infty $$
(Unless the models are some how equivalent and I missed that)