[EDITED for more clarity]
I performed a meta-analysis of single proportion with logit transformation, which I made using the metaprop
function, with a random intercept logistic regression model as the default option in the meta
package.
Let's say for example that i want to meta-analyze the proportion of asymptomatic on the total number of patients, and I have a moderator:
moderator <- c(1,2,2,2.5,4)
m1 <- metaprop(c(10,20,30,40,50), c(100,300,400,330,240), comb.fixed=FALSE, prediction=TRUE)
So I have defined the meta-analysis object in m1.
To perform a meta-regression with the moderator, I use the TE of the meta-analysis, with the following code:
model1 <- rma(yi=m1$TE, sei=m1$seTE, method="ML", mods = ~ moderator)
Which gave me as result:
tau^2 (estimated amount of residual heterogeneity): 0.0000 (SE = 0.0224)
tau (square root of estimated tau^2 value): 0.0011
I^2 (residual heterogeneity / unaccounted variability): 0.00%
H^2 (unaccounted variability / sampling variability): 1.00
R^2 (amount of heterogeneity accounted for): 100.00%
Test for Residual Heterogeneity:
QE(df = 3) = 6.5458, p-val = 0.0879
Test of Moderators (coefficient 2):
QM(df = 1) = 26.2205, p-val < .0001
Model Results:
estimate se zval pval ci.lb ci.ub
intrcpt -3.2733 0.2623 -12.4772 <.0001 -3.7875 -2.7591 ***
moderator 0.4735 0.0925 5.1206 <.0001 0.2922 0.6547 ***
Two question are:
- It is correct to conduct the meta-regression like this? it won't be better to use the transformed proportion in the meta-regression model?
For example with a code like this:
model2 <- rma(yi=transf.ilogit(m1$TE), sei=transf.ilogit(m1$seTE), method="ML", mods = ~ moderator)
which gave me totally different result:
Mixed-Effects Model (k = 5; tau^2 estimator: ML)
tau^2 (estimated amount of residual heterogeneity): 0 (SE = 0.1933)
tau (square root of estimated tau^2 value): 0
I^2 (residual heterogeneity / unaccounted variability): 0.00%
H^2 (unaccounted variability / sampling variability): 1.00
R^2 (amount of heterogeneity accounted for): 0.00%
Test for Residual Heterogeneity:
QE(df = 3) = 0.0128, p-val = 0.9996
Test of Moderators (coefficient 2):
QM(df = 1) = 0.0308, p-val = 0.8607
Model Results:
estimate se zval pval ci.lb ci.ub
intrcpt 0.0114 0.6430 0.0177 0.9859 -1.2490 1.2717
moderator 0.0444 0.2532 0.1754 0.8607 -0.4519 0.5407
---
Signif. codes: 0 ‘***’ 0.001 ‘**’ 0.01 ‘*’ 0.05 ‘.’ 0.1 ‘ ’ 1
- If I exponentiate the coefficient from the first meta-regression model, I get an OR; see for example:
round(exp(coef(summary(model1))[-1,c("estimate", "ci.lb", "ci.ub")]), 2)
Which gave me the OR of 1.47 [95% CI 0.02-98.71]
is it correct to say that "for each unit increase of moderator, the odds of bein asymptomatic increase by 47%"?
- Sticking with the model 1, I may need to plot the relationship between the moderator and the prevalence of asymptomatic disease. Following the instructions reported here: https://www.metafor-project.org/doku.php/plots:meta_analytic_scatterplot, and with a little tuning (since I have to transform the logit transformed proportions in the plot) i used this code:
preds <- predict(model1, newmods=c(1:4), transf=transf.ilogit)
plot(NA, NA, xlim=c(1,4), ylim=c(0,1), xlab="Moderator", ylab="Prevalence")
lines(1:4, preds$pred, col="black")
lines(1:4, preds$ci.lb, lty="dashed", col="black")
lines(1:4, preds$ci.ub, lty="dashed", col="black")
size <- 1 / sqrt(m1$seTE)
size <- size/10 / max(size)
symbols(moderator, transf.ilogit(m1$TE), circles=size, inches=FALSE, add=TRUE, bg="black")
Is that ok to represent in the plot the relationship between the moderator and the transformed proportion, even if the meta-regression was conducted with the untransformed one?