4
$\begingroup$

I am trying to model the variance of a time series $Y_n$ which is the sum of $n$ observations of $X_i$. I've reviewed the other answers on CrossValidated; however, I haven't been able to apply those solutions to this problem where I have known distributions of $X_i$ and known $\rho_k$ values. This is the closest answer but doesn't account for $\rho_k \neq 0$ with $k>1$: Variance of average of $n$ correlated random variables.

$$Y_n = \sum_{i=1}^{n} X_i$$

We can assume that $X_i \sim N(\mu,\sigma^2)$ and that they have some autocorrelation such that

$$Cor(X_{i+1},X_{i})=\rho_1\\ Cor(X_{i+2},X_{i})=\rho_2\\ \vdots\\ Cor(X_{i+k},X_{i})=\rho_k$$

Traditionally, if $X_i$ are uncorrelated, the variance of $Y_n$ is simple:

$$Var(Y_n) = n\sigma^2$$

However, because they are correlated... it's make the $Y_n$ calculation more clumsy. I have derived a solution for a few cases (small $n$) where $\rho_k=0$ for $k>2$ below:

\begin{aligned} Var(Y_5) &= Var(X_1+X_2+X_3+X_4+X_5)\\ \\ Var(Y_5) &= 5\sigma^2 + 2Cov(X_2,X_1) + 2Cov(X_3,X_2) + 2Cov(X_3,X_1) + 2Cov(X_4,X_2) + 2Cov(X_4,X_3) + 2Cov(X_5,X_4) + 2Cov(X_5,X_3)\\ \\ Var(Y_5) &= 5\sigma^2 + 2\rho_1 + 2\rho_1 + 2\rho_2 + 2\rho_2 + 2\rho_1 + 2\rho_1 + 2\rho_2\\ Var(Y_5) &= 5\sigma^2 + 8\rho_1 + 6\rho_2 \end{aligned}

I'm having a hard time getting a generalized solution of $Y_n$ even if we use this case where $\rho_k=0$ for $k>2$. I think it should look something like above but can't figure out the form in term so $n$, $\rho$, and $\sigma^2$. I think it should look something like this

$$Var(Y_n) = n\sigma^2 + f(n)\rho_1 + g(n)\rho_2$$

Any ideas would be very helpful. I'm sadly a little far removed from pen and paper math. Thanks

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Taking another look at stats.stackexchange.com/questions/391740/… ... I think this may be close: $Var(Y_n) = n\sigma^2 + 2(n(n-1))/n*\rho_1\sigma^2 + 2(n(n-2))/n*\rho_2\sigma^2 $ for the n=5 case, $Var(Y_5) = 5\sigma^2 + 2(5(4))/5*\rho_1\sigma^2 + 2(5(3))/5*\rho_2\sigma^2 $ $------->$ $Var(Y_5) = 5\sigma^2 + 8\rho_1\sigma^2 + 6\rho_2\sigma^2 $ $\endgroup$
    – dave325
    Commented Mar 8, 2021 at 14:44

1 Answer 1

5
$\begingroup$

It looks like you are supposing the covariance matrix of $(X_1,X_2,\ldots,X_N)$ is

$$\Sigma = \sigma^2\pmatrix{1 & \rho_1 & \rho_2 & \cdots & \rho_{N-1} \\ \rho_1 & 1 & \rho_1 & \cdots & \rho_{N-2}\\ \rho_2 & \rho_1 & 1 & \cdots & \rho_{N-3}\\ \vdots & \vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots\\ \rho_{N-1} & \rho_{N-2} & \rho_{N-3} & \cdots & 1} = (\sigma^2\rho_{|i-j|})_{1\le i\le N,\, 1 \le j\le N}$$

where, for the convenience of that final formula, I have set $\rho_0 = 1.$

Consider $Y_m = X_1 + X_2 + \cdots + X_m$ and $Y_n = X_1 + X_2 + \cdots + X_n$ where $1 \le m, n\le N.$ Writing $1_k = (1,1,\ldots,1,0,0,\ldots,0)^\prime$ for the vector with $k$ initial ones ($k=0, 1, \ldots, N$ are the possible values of $k$), you can read the covariance directly off the matrix product as

$$\operatorname{Cov}(Y_m,Y_n) = 1_m^\prime \Sigma 1_n$$

because this (obviously, by the rules of matrix multiplication) is the sum of all entries in the $m\times n$ upper left block of $\Sigma,$ which is

$$\operatorname{Cov}(Y_m,Y_n)= \sum_{i=1}^m \sum_{j=1}^n \Sigma_{ij} = \sigma^2\sum_{i=1}^m \sum_{j=1}^n \rho_{|i-j|}.$$

By the standard formula for correlation in terms of covariances, the correlation matrix of $(Y_1, Y_2, \ldots, Y_N)$ therefore has entries

$$\operatorname{Cor}(Y_m,Y_n) = \frac{\operatorname{Cov}(Y_m,Y_n)}{\sqrt{\operatorname{Cov}(Y_m,Y_m)\operatorname{Cov}(Y_n,Y_n)}}.$$

Because all the factors of $\sigma$ will cancel in this ratio, you may ignore them in the computation, whence

$$\operatorname{Cor}(Y_m,Y_n) = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^m \sum_{j=1}^n \rho_{|i-j|}}{\sum_{i=1}^m \sum_{j=1}^m \rho_{|i-j|}\sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{j=1}^n \rho_{|i-j|}}.$$

These double sums can be expressed a little more simply, after reversing the roles of $Y_m$ and $Y_n$ if necessary to assure $m\le n,$ where

$$\begin{aligned} \operatorname{Cov}(Y_m,Y_n) &= \sigma^2 m(\rho_1+\rho_2+\cdots+\rho_{n-m}) + \sigma^2\sum_{j=1}^m (m-j)(\rho_j + \rho_{n-m+j}). \end{aligned}$$

Applying this to the case $m=n$ gives

$$ \operatorname{Var}(Y_m) = \sigma^2\left(m + \sum_{i=1}^{m-1} 2(m-i)\rho_i\right).$$

For example,

$$\operatorname{Var}(Y_5) = \sigma^2(5 + 8\rho_1 + 6\rho_2 + 4\rho_3 + 2\rho_4).$$

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much for the thorough answer. Makes sense! At least I was on the right track $\endgroup$
    – dave325
    Commented Mar 8, 2021 at 21:11

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.