I realize that this question is most likely not too interesting and challenging to discuss here, it's rather a matter of different notations, but I would like to clarify that if possible.
When conducting Z/t tests, I got used to the convention that $z_{\frac{\alpha}{2}}$ is such a value that $P(Z>z_\frac{\alpha}{2}) = \frac{\alpha}{2}$. It also follows that $-z_{\frac{\alpha}{2}} = z_{1-\frac{\alpha}{2}}$. The same is true for the t-test and is just a matter of swapping the letters.
Visually speaking, this is just such a value that the area to the right equals $\frac{\alpha}{2}$.
I noticed, however, that sometimes these cutoff values are introduced as the inverse CDFs and then the order of the values on the X-axis is reversed, of course.
What is interesting, some authors mix the two and then their notation gets a bit confusing. See, for example, below:
https://online.stat.psu.edu/stat500/lesson/6b/6b.1
$t_{0.005}$ is positive here in the solution, but the illustrations place $t_{1-\alpha}$ on the right of the X-axis, which doesn't make a lot of sense to me unless there is this notation failure.
What is the more widely accepted notation? Well, I understand that this is not a big deal at all and it's always clear from context which notation the author prefers, but I just stumbled upon the online book above and this inconsistency made me wonder.
Thanks!