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The Analysis of Longitudinal Data textbook by Diggle et al. (2002) mentioned twice (p48 f. and then on p82) that given the following definition of the variogram, \begin{equation} \gamma(u) = \frac{1}{2}\mathrm{E}[\{Y(t) - Y(t-u)\}^2], \quad u \geq 0 \end{equation} for some stationary stochastic process $\{Y(t)\}$ and $\mathrm{Var}(Y(t)) = \sigma^2$, we can rewrite the variogram in terms of some correlation function $\rho(Y(t), Y(t-u)) := \rho(u)$: \begin{equation} \gamma(u) = \sigma^2 \{1 - \rho(u)\}. \end{equation}

How is the second equation derived from the first?


My answer (following @whuber's answer):

First, expand the definition of the variogram,\begin{align} \gamma(u) &= \frac{1}{2}\mathrm{E}[\{Y(t) - Y(t-u)\}^2] \\ &= \frac{1}{2}\mathrm{E}[Y^2(t)] - \mathrm{E}[Y(t)Y(t-u)] + \frac{1}{2}\mathrm{E}[Y^2(t-u)]. \end{align}

Then, I use $\mathrm{Var}(X) = \mathrm{E}[X^2] - \mathrm{E}[X]^2 \implies \mathrm{E}[X^2] = \mathrm{Var}(X)+\mathrm{E}[X]^2$ to continue, writing $\mathrm{E}[Y(t)] =: \mu(t)$,\begin{align} \gamma(u) &= \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2 + \frac{1}{2}\mu^2(t) - \mathrm{E}[Y(t)Y(t-u)] + \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2 + \frac{1}{2}\mu^2(t-u) \\ &= \sigma^2 - \mathrm{E}[Y(t)Y(t-u)] + \frac{1}{2}\mu^2(t) + \frac{1}{2}\mu^2(t-u). \end{align}

This gives the $\sigma^2$ part. To try to work in the covariance, \begin{align} \mathrm{Cov}\{Y(t), Y(t-u)\} &= \mathrm{E}[\{Y(t)-\mu(t)\}\{Y(t-u)-\mu(t-u)\}] \\ &= \mathrm{E}[Y(t)Y(t-u)] - \mu(t)\mu(t-u) \\ &= \sigma^2 \rho(u). \end{align}

Fit this expression into that last expression for the variogram, \begin{align} \gamma(u) &= \sigma^2 - \mathrm{E}[Y(t)Y(t-u)] + \mu(t)\mu(t-u) - \mu(t)\mu(t-u) + \frac{1}{2}\mu^2(t) + \frac{1}{2}\mu^2(t-u) \\ &= \sigma^2 - \sigma^2\rho(u) - \mu(t)\mu(t-u) + \frac{1}{2}\mu^2(t) + \frac{1}{2}\mu^2(t-u) \\ &= \sigma^2 - \sigma^2\rho(u) + \frac{1}{2}\{\mu(t)-\mu(t-u)\}^2. \end{align}

Now, since $\{Y(t)\}$ is a stationary process, $\mu(t) = \mu(t-u)$, \begin{align} \gamma(u) &= \sigma^2 - \sigma^2\rho(u) + \frac{1}{2}\{\mu(t)-\mu(t-u)\}^2 \\ &= \sigma^2 - \sigma^2\rho(u) + 0 \\ &= \sigma^2\{1 - \rho(u)\}. \end{align}

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Stationarity is a bit of a distraction because this is a simple property of any two random variables $Y(t)$ and $Y(t-u)$ having common (finite) variances $\sigma^2$ and zero expectations.

Fix $t$ and $u.$ Because $E[Y(t)]=E[Y(t-u)]=0$ and $E\left[Y^2(t)\right] = E\left[Y^2(t-u)\right] = \sigma^2,$

$$\operatorname{Cov}(Y(t), Y(t-u)) = E[Y(t)Y(t-u)] = \sigma^2 \rho(Y(t),Y(t-u)).$$

This is an immediate consequence of the definitions of covariance, correlation, and variance.

The linearity property of expectation implies

$$\begin{aligned} 2\gamma(t,u) &= E\left[(Y(t)-Y(t-u))^2\right]\\ &= E\left[Y^2(t)\right] + E\left[Y^2(t-u)\right] - 2 E\left[Y(t)Y(t-u)\right]\\ &= 2\sigma^2 - 2\operatorname{Cov}(Y(t), Y(t-u))\\ &= 2\sigma^2 - 2\sigma^2\rho(Y(t),Y(t-u)) \end{aligned}$$

Stationarity (or just second-order stationarity) implies the correlation $\rho(t,u) = \rho(u)$ depends only on $u,$ permitting us to conclude

$$\gamma(u) = \gamma(t,u) = \sigma^2(1-\rho^2(u)).$$

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  • $\begingroup$ This is quite clear, thank you! Just one thing to clarify: why do we assume that $Y(t)$ and $Y(t-u)$ have zero expectations? $\endgroup$
    – ning
    Commented Apr 12, 2021 at 15:01
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    $\begingroup$ Good question. You only need to assume they have the same expectation, because those expectations cancel out in the subtraction. Having observed that, it is therefore convenient to set that common expectation to zero. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Apr 12, 2021 at 15:11
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks the the hint! I've re-attempted the question, as in edited my attempt above, for non-zero expectations (I don't think I should allow myself to assume zero expectations until I have cancelled it for myself). However, I'm still not quite there — could you give another hint? $\endgroup$
    – ning
    Commented Apr 13, 2021 at 4:21
  • $\begingroup$ I figured it out with help from my lecturer: we can assume each $Y(\cdot)$ has constant expectation, because that follows from $Y$ being a stationary process. In that case, this answer should work for RVs with constant expectations as well, right? $\endgroup$
    – ning
    Commented Apr 13, 2021 at 9:23
  • $\begingroup$ That's correct. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Apr 13, 2021 at 13:20

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