I am struggling with the study of value at risk (VaR) and expected shortfall (ES). In particular, I am looking for some cases in which these two measures can be equal. I know that, given a loss cdf $F_L(x)$ VaR is defined as $\inf\{x\in\mathbb{R}:F_L(x)\geq\alpha\}$, for $\alpha\in(0,1)$. ES instead is $(1-\alpha)^{-1}\int_{\alpha}^{1}\text{VaR}_L(u)du$ for $\alpha\in0$.
Is there a distribution for which VaR and ES are equal? If yes, how can I prove it mathematically? I was wondering about a function with jumps but i'm not sure about that. Thanks for your help.