This question is highly related to this one: Mostly Harmless Econometrics, explanation of solution to the population least squares problem
In the book Harmless Econometrics, page 35, the authors say this :
This section is concerned with the vector of population regression coefficients, defined as the solution to a population least squares problem. At this point we are not worried about causality. Rather, we let the Kx1 regression coefficient vector β be defined by solving $β=argmin b E[(Yi−Xi^′b)^2]$. Using the first-order condition, $E[Xi(Yi−Xi′b)]=0$, the solution can be written $β=E(XiXi′)^{1}E(XiYi)$.
I don't understand how they derive the beta vector under the argmin condition to find $β=argminbE[(Yi−Xi^′b)^2]$. In particular I don't understand the difference between $Xi'$ and $Xi$. I'm sure I'm missing something pretty obvious. I saw that the question I linked had many views, maybe there are other people wondering the same thing as I do.