I conducted a regression in Excel between variables x and y. The correlation is 0.3. The coefficient for x is 3. The p-value for the coefficient is 0.5.
I have read in some places the p-value of 0.5 can be used to say BOTH the x coefficient and correlation coefficient are insignificant. It seems as if people are saying the p-value for the x coefficient is the same as the p-value for the correlation coefficient.
Is the one p-value next to the independent variable also the p-value for the correlation coefficient? If not, why would the Excel regression output not include a p-value for the correlation? Does it have anything to do with the fact that standardized data will have independent variable coefficients which are equal to their correlation coefficients?