The problem of correctly interpreting confidence intervals has been discussed at length here. I have a related question which I believe may be a useful contribution: Frequentist probabilities by definition refer to an infinite number of repetitions of an experiment. Therefore, the frequentist definition of a confidence interval (CI) is: If you extract an inifinite number of samples from a normal distribution with unknown parameters ($\mu,\sigma$) and calculate a CI from each sample via a defined algorithm $A_{95}$, said CI will contain $\mu$ in $95 \% $ of all cases. From a frequentist point of view, it doesn't make sense to apply that probability to a given CI to estimate its likelihood of containing $\mu$.

But what if someone were to switch from a frequentist to a Bayesian viewpoint after constructing the CI and ask themselves the question: "How confident am I (i. e. at what rate would I - given that there is someone who knows $\mu$ and will reveal it at some point - be willing to bet) that this given CI contains $\mu$ knowing that it was constructed using $A_{95}$?"

Wouldn't the answer be "$95 \%$" (or $20:1$)?

C. f.: Should I have "Confidence" in Credibility Intervals?

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    $\begingroup$ A "credible interval" depends on the assumed prior distribution for the parameter. A "confidence interval" does not bring this, so the answer is "no" $\endgroup$
    – Henry
    Commented Jun 2, 2021 at 9:08
  • $\begingroup$ Ok, so a Bayesian can make no use of the given CI? What would be a possible way for him/her to determine their level of confidence in this situation? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 2, 2021 at 9:14
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    $\begingroup$ For a given likelihood/prior combination there might be a solution, but in general, there will not be. Assuming an exponential family model, there will be sufficient statistics, and you should be able to recontsruct the parameter estimates from the given CI. Then combine that with a conjugate prior ... $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 2, 2021 at 21:13
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    $\begingroup$ the formal way for a Bayesian to use a confidence interval is that they look at it very hard, and then they use it to intuit a prior for their subsequent analysis $\endgroup$
    – rep_ho
    Commented Jun 2, 2021 at 22:18

2 Answers 2


For so called location models, such as your linear regression, anovas etc., basically for models where the outcome depends linearly on the estimated parameters, the confidence interval will be the same as the credible interval with flat prior.

If you want to know how would that credible interval look like with a different prior, then you add that prior information to your results as you would do normally as a Bayesian.

This is not the case for models where the outcome depends non-linearly on parameters, such as for logistic regression. I think this is because likelihood is invariant to reparametrizations, but priors are not, so you cannot really have a non-informative prior in this case. There are also invariant priors, and probability matching priors, but unfortunately I don't know how they fit into the picture. Sorry

How much will confidence and credible intervals differ, depends on the data. The more data you have, the less will they differ. With a lot of data (infinite) they will be the same again. If they are different, credible intervals won't have the proper coverage, which might not be something you want.

If you want a more mathy treatment of this topic look at

Fraser, D. A. S. “Is Bayes Posterior Just Quick and Dirty Confidence?” Statistical Science, vol. 26, no. 3, 2011, pp. 299–316. JSTOR, www.jstor.org/stable/23059129. Accessed 3 June 2021. (there is also an arxiv version https://arxiv.org/abs/1112.5582)

There you will also find a formula to how much will they differ and also how to get from a confidence quantile to Bayesian quantile. The math in the paper should be good, but the sentiment of the paper is not something that is generally accepted.

  • $\begingroup$ Ok, so by assuming a flat (uniform) prior - which seems plausible if no further information is provided - the confidence interval can indeed be interpreted as a credible interval, right? (Which is what people do all the time as Dikran mentioned ;) $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 4, 2021 at 11:58
  • $\begingroup$ @chicken_game not for all models tho $\endgroup$
    – rep_ho
    Commented Jun 8, 2021 at 13:45

"But what if someone were to switch from a frequentist to a Bayesian viewpoint after constructing the CI and ask themselves the question: "How confident am I (i. e. at what rate would I - given that there is someone who knows μ and will reveal it at some point - be willing to bet) that this given CI contains μ knowing that it was constructed using A95?""

Yes, that is often exactly what people do interpret confidence intervals without realising they are silently moving from one probabilistic framework to another, without stating the assumption that bridges the two.

It is often fairly benign as there may be a reasonable (i.e. non-contrived) Baysian prior for which the frequentist confidence interval and credible interval are numerically the same. From a subjectivist perspective, there is nothing wrong with viewing the long history of benign interpretations of confidence intervals as credible intervals as justifying that Bayesian confidence in credible intervals.

However the point is that they are answers to different questions so we should not expect the answer to be the same. Bayesians can also form confidence intervals if they choose to do so, I suspect they rarely do because it generally isn't the question you want to ask, and frequentists only use them because they can't give a direct probabilistic answer to the question you actually do want to ask.

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    $\begingroup$ is always frequentists that are blamed, but interpreting posterior probability as a proportion across many repetitions is equally as benign/malignant $\endgroup$
    – rep_ho
    Commented Jun 3, 2021 at 10:49
  • $\begingroup$ @rep_ho it depends on the problem, but a posterior probability often will be the proportion across many repetitions, and on those cases the Bayesian credible interval will be the same as the Bayesian confidence interval. This problem arises less frequently anyway because generally we want to know what we can reasonably infer from the data we have actually observed, rather than in some fictitious population of experiments that we did not perform. We are so used to frequentist stats that we often don't think enough about the question, just the answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 3, 2021 at 11:18
  • $\begingroup$ I'm an engineer and I want my stats toolbox to have all of the tools, and use the right tool for the particular task. There is nothing wrong with frequentist stats, it is just that they should really only be used where they directly answer the question you really want to ask (rather than fitting the question to the frame work, which is a bit of a case of "if your only tool is a hammer..."). ... or if you don't like integrals ;o) $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 3, 2021 at 11:20

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