I have already read the answer from What is the difference between a “link function” and a “canonical link function” for GLM but I think my question is different from this one. I am watching the MIT open course on GLM and the explanation of the link function is wonderful and crystal clear. What I am still confused about is why the canonical link function, canonical to the particular distribution of the canonical exponential family is defined as the inverse of $b'$?
The exponential family can always be written in the following form: $$f_{\theta}(y)=\exp \left(\frac{y \theta-b(\theta)}{\phi}+c(y, \phi)\right)$$
In the lecture, the professor explains a canonical link function $g$ is canonical to the distribution which belongs to the canonical exponential family, and the canonical exponential family is completely characterized by $b$, hence we only need to know the connection between $g$ and $b$. Then the professor moves onto say $g=(b')^{-1}$
But just why the canonical link is connected to $b$ through the inverse of the first derivative of $b$ is unclear. Why not $g=b^{-1}$?
Besides, by defining $g=(b')^{-1}$, we are able to substitute $\theta$ by $X^T\beta$ when modeling, and it is much easier to solve the optimization problem of the log-likelihood. But that means the fact that link is called canonical is because it will result in the function which links $\theta$ and $X^T\beta$ being an identity. How does making the function between $\theta$ and $X^T\beta$ an identity has anything to do with the link being canonical? i.e. canonical in what sense?