1
$\begingroup$

This question is very similar to: Distribution of the ratio of dependent chi-square random variables

But the big difference is what happens when we don't have standard normal variables.


I want to know the expectation (and potentially other moments/distribution) of:

$$ W = \frac{X_1^2}{X_1^2 + \sum_{i=2}^{n} X_i^2} $$

where $X_i \sim N(0, \sigma_i^2)$ for $i = 1, ..., n$.

If all the variances of the $X$-s are equal, then this reduces to a ratio of chi-square random variables and the distribution of $W$ is a beta distribution. However, when the variances are not the same, I can't see a way to use that result.

Is the answer a simpe textbook result, or does it need to be worked out from scratch? If it's the latter, what's the best way to go about it? I haven't done this before.

Another way to phrasing it is what is the distribution of $W = \frac{U}{U+ V}$ where $U \sim \Gamma(\frac{N -1}{2}, 2\sigma^2)^{\text{is this correct?}}$, but then what is $V$? I guess that's another question: if $V = \sum_i \sigma_i ^2 Z_i^2$ is the sum of a bunch of scaled standard normal variables, what is its distribution? Is it some generalised form of the Gamma distribution?


Given some commenters suggested that this may not have a closed form solution, here is an alternative question. With large $n$, $\sum_{i=2}^{n} X_i^2$ tends towards normally distributed. So the alternative question is this:

If we have

$$ W_2 = \frac{Y^2}{Y^2 + a + bZ}$$

where $Y \sim N(0, 1)$ and $Z \sim N(0, 1)$ are independent and standard normal, and $a$ and $b$ are positive constants, does this have a closed form solution?

$\endgroup$
6
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ I do not think there is a closed form solution in the general case. $\endgroup$
    – Xi'an
    Jul 19, 2021 at 9:20
  • $\begingroup$ @Xi'an Yeah the expectation looks like a complicated integral, hard to put it into a symbolic integrator since it has an arbitrary number of dimensions. I updated my question with a simplified form (if we assume n is large and the second chi-square tends to a normal distribution). Do you have any thoughts on that? $\endgroup$
    – Marses
    Jul 19, 2021 at 12:31
  • $\begingroup$ Re "with large $n$ ... normally distributed:" Not in general. You need to make assumptions about the $\sigma_i^2.$ $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Jul 19, 2021 at 12:46
  • $\begingroup$ Yeah I know. But firstly, if the variances are finite and if let's say they all go as $\sigma_i^2 / N$ for some "roughly similar" $\sigma_i$, then as $N \rightarrow \infty$ the CLT works right? And anyway, this is the only useful approximation I could think of. Tried running the integral in Wolfgram, but it says the compute time was too long and I needed a pro account, so I assume this probably means that even the approximation doesn't have a closed form solution >.<. $\endgroup$
    – Marses
    Jul 19, 2021 at 13:04
  • $\begingroup$ Where does the correlation come into play? Your initial description of the issue doesn't mention correlation and one might think that all of the $X_i^2$ random variables are independent. $\endgroup$
    – JimB
    Jul 19, 2021 at 15:58

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

I don't see where you've described any correlation structure (despite the title using the term "correlated"). So maybe starting small with $n=2$ and assuming independence will be a start.

Using Mathematica (or probably just basic algebra) one can find the distribution of

$$W_2=X_1^2/(X_1^2+X_2^2)$$

where $X_i \sim N(0,\sigma_i^2)$.

dist = TransformedDistribution[x^2, x \[Distributed] NormalDistribution[0, s]];
distw2 = TransformedDistribution[x1/(x1 + x2), 
  {x1 \[Distributed] dist /. s -> \[Sigma][1], 
   x2 \[Distributed] dist /. s -> \[Sigma][2]}];
Mean[distw2]

with the result being

$$\frac{\sigma_1}{\sigma_1+\sigma_2}$$

That suggests that maybe for general $n$, there might be a simple formula for the mean. Either further manipulations or simulations could give support or squash that hope.

The variance of $W_2$ is $\frac{\sigma_1 \sigma_2}{2 (\sigma_1+\sigma_2)^2}$.

Addition:

The density of $W_3=X_1^2/(X_1^2+X_2^2+X_3^2)$ is

$$-\frac{\sigma_1^2 \sigma_3 E\left(-\frac{(w-1) \sigma_1^2 \left(\sigma_2^2-\sigma_3^2\right)}{\left((w-1) \sigma_1^2-w \sigma_2^2\right) \sigma_3^2}\right)}{\pi \sqrt{w \left(\sigma_2^2 w-\sigma_1^2 (w-1)\right)} \left(\sigma_1^2 (w-1)-\sigma_3^2 w\right)}$$

where $\sigma_2 \leq \sigma_3$, $E(.)$ is the complete elliptic integral, and found with the following Mathematica code:

dist2 = TransformedDistribution[x2 + x3, 
  {x2 \[Distributed] GammaDistribution[1/2, 2 s[2]^2], 
   x3 \[Distributed] GammaDistribution[1/2, 2 s[3]^2]},
   Assumptions -> 0 < s[2] <= s[3]];

dist123 = TransformedDistribution[x1/(x1 + x23), 
  {x1 \[Distributed] GammaDistribution[1/2, 2 s[1]^2],
   x23 \[Distributed] dist2}];
Simplify[PDF[dist123, w], Assumptions -> s[1] > 0]

I have not found a closed-form representation for the mean when $n=3$ but when the variances are known, then numerical integration should easily find the mean and other desired moments.

Special case

Suppose $\sigma_1^2=\sigma^2_U$ and $\sigma_i^2=\sigma^2_V$ for $i=2,\ldots,n$. Then $W=U/(U+V)$. The mean of that distribution can be found with

dist = TransformedDistribution[
  u/(u + v), {u \[Distributed] GammaDistribution[1/2, 2 \[Sigma]u^2],
   v \[Distributed] GammaDistribution[(n - 1)/2, 2 \[Sigma]v^2]}]

mean = FullSimplify[Mean[dist], Assumptions -> {\[Sigma]u > 0, \[Sigma]v > 0}]

$$\frac{(n+1) \sigma_u^2 \, _2F_1\left(-\frac{1}{2},\frac{n}{2};\frac{n+2}{2};1-\frac{\sigma_v^2}{\sigma_u^2}\right)-\left((n-1) \sigma_v^2+\sigma_u^2\right) \, _2F_1\left(\frac{1}{2},\frac{n}{2};\frac{n+2}{2};1-\frac{\sigma_v^2}{\sigma_u^2}\right)}{n \sigma_u \sigma_v}$$

where $_2 F_1$ is the hypergeometric function.

Specifying values of $n$ results in great simplifications:

FullSimplify[mean /. n -> 2, Assumptions -> {\[Sigma]u > 0, \[Sigma]v > 0}]

$$\frac{\sigma_U}{\sigma_U+\sigma_V}$$

FullSimplify[mean /. n -> 6, Assumptions -> {\[Sigma]u > 0, \[Sigma]v > 0}]

$$\frac{\sigma_U^2 (3 \sigma_U+\sigma_V)}{3 (\sigma_U+\sigma_V)^3}$$

$\endgroup$
11
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Ah yeah sorry the title is misleading; I mean correlated in the sense that the denominator as a whole is correlated with the numerator; though really neither the numerator or denominator are chi-square distributed. $\endgroup$
    – Marses
    Jul 19, 2021 at 16:21
  • $\begingroup$ That's interesting and a bit surprising actually, since my first (incorrect) intuition for this problem was that the answer would be the ratio of the variances (i.e. $\frac{\sigma_1^2}{\sigma_1^2 + \sum \sigma_i^2}$). Since asking my question, I ran numerical tests with $\sum_{i=1} \sigma_i^2 = 1$, a fixed $\sigma_1$ and all the other $\sigma_i^2 = \frac{1 - \sigma_1^2}{N-1}$ for $i = 2, ..., N$, and the results "look" like they tend to an asymptote, and numerically it looks like it doesn't depend on N as long as N is large, which is why I thought the second ratio would be easier. $\endgroup$
    – Marses
    Jul 19, 2021 at 16:30
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ For a large $n$, you might consider using a gamma distribution with the same mean and variance as the sum of the $X_i^2$ ($i=2,\ldots,n$) random variables. That will result in an explicit approximation for the mean (as I'm not so sure that you'll get that assuming a normal distribution). $\endgroup$
    – JimB
    Jul 19, 2021 at 18:15
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Yes, it is to use a gamma rather than a normal to estimate the sum of gammas with different variances. It would be a gamma that has the same mean and variance as the sum of the gammas with different variances. $\endgroup$
    – JimB
    Jul 20, 2021 at 12:02
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Sorry. Just added a definition of the $_2 F_1$ hypergeometric function. $\endgroup$
    – JimB
    Jul 20, 2021 at 12:36

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.