my approach was like this ,
Assuming π β ββ,two numbers are drawn randomly. Lets call the first one π₯ and the second π¦. Furthermore we learn that both are drawn from the uniform distribution on {0,1}. (Actually the distribution is not given, but I chose a simple one to not complicate matters). Because the two events are supposed to be independent (which I also assume), we can draw all possibly combinations as a pair of numbers (π₯,π¦) that is (0,1) & (1,0),
We need to establish the probability the number 5x+y is divisible by 3.
case1: when (π₯,π¦) = (0,1) : we get 5x+y = 1
1 is not divisible by 3.
case2: when (π₯,π¦) = (1,0) : we get 5x+y = 5
5 is not divisible by 3.
so the probability that 5x+y within interval {0,1} is divisible by 3 is zero.
I am definitely not convinced by my approach . kindly suggest.