I am interested in a situation when the time to event is observed partially. In the right-censoring situation, we know the start time of the disease $s$ but do not observe the death time $d$, because of censoring time $c_r$. So time interval $c_r-s$ is observed.
What situation am I in, when the death is observed at time $d$, but the start time of the disease $s$ is not known due to censoring time $c_l$? So the time interval $d-c_l$ is observed.
For the right-censoring the contribution to the likelihood is $S_\theta(c_r-s)$, where $S_\theta(t)$ is a parametric survival function. What would be the contribution to the likelihood in the second situation: is it $1-S_\theta(d-c_l)$?
Consider an example of consumer buying a product. Suppose we have data from time $c_l$ to $c_r$ about repeated purchases and we model inter-purchase time. Three cases are possible:
- The time of the current purchase is observed but the time of the next purchase is after $c_r$ (not observed) - right-censoring.
- The time of the previous purchase is before $c_l$ (not observed) but the time of the current purchase is observed - the situation under question. I could just ignore this observation, but it might be informative (especially in a situation with rare purchases).
- The interval between the two purchases falls into $(c_l,c_r)$ - full observation.
time = 0
to represent for survival: is it some baseline chronological age or the "start time of the disease"? If the latter, how is "start time of the disease" defined for cases with fully observed values? Also, do your data include patients who haven't died by study end, or are the patients included because they are known to have died? Please edit the question to provide that information, as comments are easy to overlook and can get deleted. $\endgroup$