I am really struggling to understand why confidence bands for regression lines have a curve to them. A few example plots showing curved CIs, taken from this post: Shape of confidence interval for predicted values in linear regression
I have read a bit and understand that the standard error for the sampling distribution of $\hat y$ at a given point ($\hat y^*$) is as follows:
$$ MSE \sqrt{\frac{1}{n} + \frac{(x^*-\bar x)^2}{\sum_{i=1}^n (x_i-\bar x)^2}} $$
Because the above equation has $(x^* - \bar x)^2$ in the numerator, the further we are from $\bar x$, the bigger the standard error will be, hence the curve being 'thinnest' when $x = \bar x$, and fatter as $x$ increases/decreases.
But why does that make sense?
My thinking is this: if one of the assumptions for a linear regression is homogeneity of variance for $Y$ across values of $X$, and the residuals from our regression are also equally distributed across values of $X$, why would the variance of our sampling distributions of $\hat y$ not be the same at each value of $X$?
Clearly I am missing something!